Chapter 2: Remote Pilot

Chapter 2: Remote Pilot#

Remote Pilot FAA Knowledge Test#

FAA Part 107 sUAS Knowledge Quiz – Batch 1 (1–15)#

1. What is the minimum age to be eligible for a Remote Pilot Certificate under Part 107?

Options:

  • 14 years

  • 16 years

  • 18 years

  • 21 years

Hint: You can drive a car in many states at this age.

Show Answer **Answer:** 16 years **Explanation:** FAA regulations state that a person must be at least 16 years old to obtain a Remote Pilot Certificate for sUAS operations under Part 107.
2. What condition must always be met for sUAS operations under Part 107?

Options:

  • Operate below 500 feet AGL

  • Keep the sUAS within visual line of sight (VLOS)

  • Operate only at night

  • Use a remote pilot-in-command (RPIC) under 21

Hint: If you can’t see the drone, you can’t safely fly it.

Show Answer **Answer:** Keep the sUAS within visual line of sight (VLOS) **Explanation:** VLOS is essential for safety and situational awareness during flight operations.
3. What is the maximum weight limit for an sUAS under Part 107 (including payload)?

Options:

  • 45 lbs

  • 55 lbs

  • 60 lbs

  • 50 lbs

Hint: The FAA draws the line just below 56 lbs.

Show Answer **Answer:** 55 lbs **Explanation:** The total weight of a small UAS must be less than 55 pounds to be eligible under Part 107.
4. During daylight operations, what is the legal earliest time to operate an sUAS?

Options:

  • 30 minutes before official sunrise

  • At official sunrise

  • 1 hour before sunrise

  • Only after 9 a.m.

Hint: Some twilight is allowed—with the right equipment.

Show Answer **Answer:** 30 minutes before official sunrise **Explanation:** If the sUAS has anti-collision lights visible for 3 statute miles, it may operate during civil twilight—starting 30 minutes before sunrise.
5. What must be inspected before each sUAS flight?

Options:

  • Airspeed indicator

  • Compass calibration

  • sUAS condition and safety-related components

  • Pilot’s driver’s license

Hint: It’s all about mechanical readiness and safety.

Show Answer **Answer:** sUAS condition and safety-related components **Explanation:** Preflight inspections should verify that the aircraft is safe for operation, including battery levels, structural integrity, and control links.
6. When must an sUAS be registered with the FAA?

Options:

  • Always

  • If it weighs more than 0.55 lbs

  • Only if flying commercially

  • Only if it has a camera

Hint: Tiny drones might be exempt—but most hobby or commercial drones are not.

Show Answer **Answer:** If it weighs more than 0.55 lbs **Explanation:** sUAS must be registered if they weigh between 0.55 lbs and 55 lbs before takeoff, including payload.
7. Within how many days must a drone-related accident causing serious injury or property damage be reported to the FAA?

Options:

  • 10 days

  • 30 days

  • 24 hours

  • 7 days

Hint: You have just over a week, but not quite two.

Show Answer **Answer:** 10 days **Explanation:** Part 107 requires accident reports to be submitted to the FAA within 10 calendar days.
8. What role can the visual observer (VO) play in drone operations?

Options:

  • Replace the RPIC

  • Maintain situational awareness and VLOS

  • Control the payload

  • Handle maintenance checks

Hint: They’re your second pair of eyes.

Show Answer **Answer:** Maintain situational awareness and VLOS **Explanation:** A VO assists the remote pilot in maintaining visual line of sight and safety during operations.
9. Under Part 107, who holds final authority and responsibility for the operation of the sUAS?

Options:

  • Visual Observer

  • Camera operator

  • Remote Pilot-in-Command (RPIC)

  • Maintenance technician

Hint: It’s the person with the certificate.

Show Answer **Answer:** Remote Pilot-in-Command (RPIC) **Explanation:** The RPIC is legally responsible for the safe conduct of the flight.
10. How long is a Remote Pilot Certificate valid before a recurrent training is required?

Options:

  • 6 months

  • 12 months

  • 24 months

  • 36 months

Hint: Think biennial.

Show Answer **Answer:** 24 months **Explanation:** Remote pilots must complete FAA recurrent training every 24 months to maintain certification.
11. What condition disqualifies a person from acting as RPIC under Part 107?

Options:

  • Wearing prescription glasses

  • Being tired

  • Consuming alcohol within the past 8 hours

  • Using sunscreen

Hint: There’s an “8 hours bottle to throttle” rule.

Show Answer **Answer:** Consuming alcohol within the past 8 hours **Explanation:** Just like manned aviation, remote pilots must not consume alcohol within 8 hours of operating a sUAS.
12. What is required to fly in Class C airspace under Part 107?

Options:

  • Remote ID

  • ATC authorization

  • A private pilot certificate

  • Use of a VO

Hint: Controlled airspace requires a green light from ATC.

Show Answer **Answer:** ATC authorization **Explanation:** You must receive Air Traffic Control (ATC) authorization through LAANC or FAA DroneZone before operating in Class C.
13. What is a crewmember not allowed to do during sUAS flight operations?

Options:

  • Use binoculars to assist with spotting

  • Control the gimbal

  • Text on a cell phone

  • Serve as VO and RPIC simultaneously

Hint: Distraction is the enemy of safety.

Show Answer **Answer:** Text on a cell phone **Explanation:** All crewmembers must remain vigilant and avoid distractions, such as texting, during sUAS operations.
14. Which of the following privileges does a Remote Pilot Certificate NOT grant?

Options:

  • Commercial drone operations

  • Flying in Class G airspace without authorization

  • Operating above 400 feet AGL

  • Operating multiple sUAS under a waiver

Hint: There’s a very clear ceiling unless waived.

Show Answer **Answer:** Operating above 400 feet AGL **Explanation:** Part 107 operations must remain below 400 feet AGL unless within 400 feet of a structure and with a waiver.
15. What should you do if your Remote ID system fails before flight?

Options:

  • Fly anyway and report it later

  • Cancel or postpone the operation

  • Notify ATC

  • Use a paper logbook instead

Hint: If Remote ID is required, failure means no flight.

15. What should you do if your Remote ID system fails before flight?

Options:

  • Fly anyway and report it later

  • Cancel or postpone the operation

  • Notify ATC

  • Use a paper logbook instead

Hint: If Remote ID is required, failure means no flight.

Show Answer **Answer:** Cancel or postpone the operation **Explanation:** If Remote ID is required and it’s not functioning properly, you must not fly the sUAS until it’s fixed or you are operating from an FAA-Recognized Identification Area (FRIA).

FAA Part 107 sUAS Knowledge Quiz – Batch 2 (Questions 16–30)#

16. What is the maximum ground speed allowed for sUAS operations under Part 107?

Options:

  • 50 knots

  • 87 knots

  • 100 knots

  • 120 knots

Hint: It’s equal to 100 mph.

Show Answer **Answer:** 87 knots **Explanation:** Part 107 limits sUAS ground speed to 87 knots (100 mph) for safety and control.
17. Which document must be made available to FAA officials upon request during drone operations?

Options:

  • AVO training card

  • Remote Pilot Certificate

  • Drone warranty receipt

  • Local flight club ID

Hint: It’s the license to fly commercially.

Show Answer **Answer:** Remote Pilot Certificate **Explanation:** Remote pilots must carry and present their Part 107 certificate when requested by the FAA or law enforcement.
18. What is considered a serious injury requiring FAA accident reporting?

Options:

  • A minor bruise

  • Any injury requiring an ice pack

  • Loss of consciousness or hospitalization

  • Paper cut

Hint: Think ER-worthy.

Show Answer **Answer:** Loss of consciousness or hospitalization **Explanation:** Part 107 defines serious injury as one requiring hospitalization or causing loss of consciousness, triggering mandatory FAA reporting.
19. Who can perform maintenance on an sUAS under Part 107?

Options:

  • Only FAA-certified mechanics

  • The manufacturer only

  • Anyone qualified by the RPIC

  • Local flight club official

Hint: The RPIC decides who’s competent.

Show Answer **Answer:** Anyone qualified by the RPIC **Explanation:** The remote pilot-in-command determines who may perform maintenance, based on qualifications or training.
20. Can you fly a drone from a moving vehicle?

Options:

  • Yes, always

  • Only in rural areas

  • Yes, if VO is present

  • Only with a waiver

Hint: A waiver is your golden ticket.

Show Answer **Answer:** Only with a waiver **Explanation:** Part 107 prohibits operating an sUAS from a moving vehicle unless approved by waiver and in certain low-population areas.
21. What is the altitude limit for flying over a structure?

Options:

  • 400 feet above the ground

  • 400 feet above the structure

  • 200 feet above the structure

  • No limit if under RPIC control

Hint: You’re allowed some extra altitude—if you’re close.

Show Answer **Answer:** 400 feet above the structure **Explanation:** You may fly within a 400-foot radius and up to 400 feet above a structure if the operation remains safe and under control.
22. What is required before operating in controlled airspace (e.g., Class B)?

Options:

  • Nothing, it’s open airspace

  • Notify the nearest tower

  • Apply for FAA authorization

  • Broadcast on CTAF

Hint: LAANC or FAA DroneZone is your route in.

Show Answer **Answer:** Apply for FAA authorization **Explanation:** Operations in Class B, C, D, and E surface areas require prior authorization via LAANC or DroneZone.
23. What weather source is recommended for checking aviation conditions?

Options:

Hint: This NOAA-backed site is a pilot’s friend.

Show Answer **Answer:** Aviationweather.gov **Explanation:** This site provides real-time aviation-specific weather reports (METARs, TAFs, SIGMETs).
24. Who is responsible for ensuring that a drone is airworthy?

Options:

  • Manufacturer

  • Visual observer

  • Remote Pilot-in-Command

  • FAA inspector

Hint: The buck stops with the pilot.

Show Answer **Answer:** Remote Pilot-in-Command **Explanation:** Under Part 107, the RPIC is solely responsible for verifying that the sUAS is in a condition for safe operation.
25. What should be done if a GPS fails during flight?

Options:

  • Immediately land the sUAS

  • Switch to ATTI (attitude) mode and maintain VLOS

  • Ignore it

FAA Knowledge Test – Airspace Classification and Operating Requirements (15 Questions)#

1. What is the primary purpose of Class B airspace?

Options:

  • To separate military operations from civilian traffic

  • To protect high-density airport traffic

  • To provide a buffer zone for uncontrolled airspace

  • To allow unrestricted drone operations

Hint: It surrounds the busiest airports with the strictest controls.

Show Answer **Answer:** To protect high-density airport traffic **Explanation:** Class B airspace surrounds the nation's busiest airports and typically extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL to ensure the safety of large volumes of air traffic.
2. What is required to operate a drone in Class C airspace?

Options:

  • No special requirements

  • ATC authorization

  • A waiver from the FAA

  • A Remote Pilot Certificate

Hint: Medium airports still need approval.

Show Answer **Answer:** ATC authorization **Explanation:** Operations in Class C airspace, which surrounds medium-traffic airports, require prior Air Traffic Control authorization under Part 107.
3. What is the vertical limit of Class G airspace?

Options:

  • Up to 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL depending on location

  • Up to 10,000 feet MSL

  • Up to 18,000 feet MSL

  • There is no vertical limit

Hint: It stops where controlled airspace begins.

Show Answer **Answer:** Up to 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL depending on location **Explanation:** Class G is uncontrolled airspace that ends at either 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where controlled airspace begins (usually Class E).
4. What is the purpose of Class E airspace?

Options:

  • To separate military and civilian traffic

  • To provide controlled airspace for IFR operations

  • To allow unrestricted drone operations

  • To protect high-density airport traffic

Hint: Think IFR corridors and transitions.

Show Answer **Answer:** To provide controlled airspace for IFR operations **Explanation:** Class E begins at 700 or 1,200 feet AGL and extends to 18,000 feet MSL, supporting IFR traffic outside Class A-D areas.
5. What is the maximum altitude for drone operations in Class G airspace without a waiver?

Options:

  • 200 feet AGL

  • 400 feet AGL

  • 500 feet AGL

  • 1,200 feet AGL

Hint: It’s the standard maximum for most Part 107 flights.

Show Answer **Answer:** 400 feet AGL **Explanation:** Part 107 permits drone flights in Class G airspace up to 400 feet AGL without needing a waiver.
6. What is the shape of Class D airspace?

Options:

  • A cylinder extending from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL

  • A cylinder extending from the surface to 2,500 feet AGL

  • A rectangular area around an airport

  • A circular area with no vertical limit

Hint: Smaller airports still have towers—and a cap.

Show Answer **Answer:** A cylinder extending from the surface to 2,500 feet AGL **Explanation:** Class D typically surrounds airports with an operational control tower and extends up to 2,500 feet AGL.
7. What is required to operate a drone in Class B airspace?

Options:

  • No special requirements

  • ATC authorization

  • A waiver from the FAA

  • A Remote Pilot Certificate

Hint: It’s the most tightly controlled.

Show Answer **Answer:** ATC authorization **Explanation:** Drone operations in Class B require ATC authorization, typically via LAANC or FAA DroneZone.
8. What is the primary purpose of Class A airspace?

Options:

  • To separate military and civilian traffic

  • To provide controlled airspace for high-altitude IFR operations

  • To allow unrestricted drone operations

  • To protect high-density airport traffic

Hint: It’s above all the rest.

Show Answer **Answer:** To provide controlled airspace for high-altitude IFR operations **Explanation:** Class A begins at 18,000 feet MSL and is reserved for high-altitude instrument traffic—drones do not operate here under Part 107.
9. What is the lateral boundary of Class C airspace?

Options:

  • 5 nautical miles from the airport

  • 10 nautical miles from the airport

  • 20 nautical miles from the airport

  • It varies depending on the airport

Hint: Think of a layered wedding cake.

Show Answer **Answer:** 10 nautical miles from the airport **Explanation:** Class C usually consists of a 5 NM inner circle and 10 NM outer ring, forming a two-tiered structure.
10. What is the purpose of a Mode C veil around Class B airspace?

Options:

  • To restrict drone operations

  • To ensure aircraft are equipped with transponders

  • To separate military and civilian traffic

  • To allow unrestricted drone operations

Hint: Think radar visibility and identification.

Show Answer **Answer:** To ensure aircraft are equipped with transponders **Explanation:** The Mode C veil extends 30 NM from Class B airports and mandates a Mode C transponder to enhance visibility and tracking.
11. What is the maximum altitude for drone operations in Class E airspace without a waiver?

Options:

  • 200 feet AGL

  • 400 feet AGL

  • 500 feet AGL

  • 1,200 feet AGL

Hint: Same as in Class G.

Show Answer **Answer:** 400 feet AGL **Explanation:** Under Part 107, drones may fly up to 400 feet AGL in Class E airspace unless operating near a structure.
12. What is the purpose of Class G airspace?

Options:

  • To provide uncontrolled airspace for VFR operations

  • To separate military and civilian traffic

  • To allow unrestricted drone operations

  • To protect high-density airport traffic

Hint: It’s where most sUAS flights start.

Show Answer **Answer:** To provide uncontrolled airspace for VFR operations **Explanation:** Class G is uncontrolled and used primarily for VFR operations close to the surface.
13. What is required to operate a drone in Class D airspace?

Options:

  • No special requirements

  • ATC authorization

  • A waiver from the FAA

  • A Remote Pilot Certificate

Hint: Even for small towers, you need the OK.

Show Answer **Answer:** ATC authorization **Explanation:** Drone operations in Class D airspace, near towered airports, require prior ATC authorization.
14. What is the vertical limit of Class B airspace?

Options:

  • Up to 10,000 feet MSL

  • Up to 18,000 feet MSL

  • Up to 5,000 feet AGL

  • There is no vertical limit

Hint: It’s taller than Class D but shorter than Class A.

Show Answer **Answer:** Up to 10,000 feet MSL **Explanation:** Class B generally extends up to 10,000 feet MSL to accommodate high-volume jet traffic.

FAA Knowledge Test – Weather & Performance (Questions 1–25)#

1. What is the primary source of weather briefings for flight planning?

Options:

  • NOAA Weather App

  • Flight Service Station (FSS)

  • ATIS

  • AWOS

Hint: This is where you get a standard, outlook, or abbreviated briefing.

Show Answer **Answer:** Flight Service Station (FSS) **Explanation:** FSS provides comprehensive preflight weather briefings and NOTAMs.
2. What type of weather product provides a 24-hour forecast of significant en route weather phenomena?

Options:

  • METAR

  • AIRMET

  • TAF

  • SIGWX Chart

Hint: This chart shows icing, turbulence, and jet streams.

Show Answer **Answer:** SIGWX Chart **Explanation:** Significant Weather (SIGWX) charts display high-level atmospheric hazards crucial for flight planning.
3. What does a METAR report provide?

Options:

  • TAF guidance

  • Radar observations

  • Hourly surface weather reports

  • Flight visibility forecasts

Hint: It’s updated every hour.

Show Answer **Answer:** Hourly surface weather reports **Explanation:** METARs provide near-real-time weather conditions observed at airports.
4. What is the effect of high humidity on aircraft performance?

Options:

  • Increases engine power

  • Decreases takeoff roll

  • Reduces lift and performance

  • Improves propeller efficiency

Hint: Moist air is less dense.

Show Answer **Answer:** Reduces lift and performance **Explanation:** High humidity lowers air density, reducing engine, propeller, and aerodynamic efficiency.
5. What does the altimeter read when flying into lower pressure without resetting?

Options:

  • Altitude increases

  • Altitude remains unchanged

  • Altitude decreases

  • Altimeter becomes inaccurate

Hint: “From high to low, look out below.”

Show Answer **Answer:** Altitude decreases **Explanation:** Without adjusting the setting, flying into lower pressure causes the altimeter to overread, giving a false high reading.
6. What service provides real-time radar and METARs in-flight for GA pilots?

Options:

  • TIBS

  • ATIS

  • Flight Following

  • Flight Information Service-Broadcast (FIS-B)

Hint: It uses ADS-B In.

Show Answer **Answer:** Flight Information Service-Broadcast (FIS-B) **Explanation:** FIS-B transmits weather and other data to equipped aircraft through ADS-B In.
7. What does a TAF primarily forecast?

Options:

  • Severe turbulence

  • Terminal area weather

  • Enroute icing

  • Surface pressure systems

Hint: It’s issued every 6 hours for major airports.

Show Answer **Answer:** Terminal area weather **Explanation:** Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) provide predictions for a 5SM radius around airports.
8. Which cloud type is most associated with turbulence and vertical development?

Options:

  • Stratus

  • Nimbostratus

  • Cumulus

  • Cirrostratus

Hint: Thunderstorms grow from these clouds.

Show Answer **Answer:** Cumulus **Explanation:** Towering cumulus or cumulonimbus clouds suggest instability and turbulence.
9. What happens to takeoff performance at high-density altitude airports?

Options:

  • Decreases

  • Increases

  • Stays constant

  • Doubles

Hint: Less dense = weaker lift.

Show Answer **Answer:** Decreases **Explanation:** Higher density altitude reduces engine thrust and wing lift, lengthening takeoff roll.
10. What is the main hazard of a temperature inversion near the surface?

Options:

  • Smooth air

  • Cold air aloft

  • Fog, low visibility, and stable air

  • Thunderstorm formation

Hint: Think “trapped” air.

Show Answer **Answer:** Fog, low visibility, and stable air **Explanation:** Inversions trap cooler air under warmer layers, fostering fog and stagnant conditions.
11. What type of icing is most hazardous?

Options:

  • Frost

  • Rime

  • Clear (glaze) icing

  • Sleet

Hint: It forms in layers and is hard to detect.

Show Answer **Answer:** Clear (glaze) icing **Explanation:** Clear ice adheres strongly, adds weight quickly, and is hard to remove.
12. How does aft CG affect aircraft stability?

Options:

  • Improves stall recovery

  • Increases stability

  • Decreases stability

  • Has no effect

Hint: Further back = less forgiving.

Show Answer **Answer:** Decreases stability **Explanation:** A rearward CG shifts control leverage, reducing longitudinal stability and stall margin.
13. Which chart shows predicted frontal locations and pressure systems?

Options:

  • Prognostic chart

  • METAR

  • Winds aloft chart

  • Surface analysis

Hint: “Prog” means forecast.

Show Answer **Answer:** Prognostic chart **Explanation:** Prog charts depict future locations of fronts, highs, lows, and precipitation.
14. What happens to climb performance with heavy loading?

Options:

  • Improves climb rate

  • Requires less fuel

  • Decreases climb performance

  • Makes no difference

Hint: More weight = more work.

Show Answer **Answer:** Decreases climb performance **Explanation:** Overloading increases required lift and reduces rate of climb.
15. What service provides voice-recorded weather updates?

Options:

  • AWOS

  • TAF

  • TIBS

  • PIREP

Hint: It’s a phone-based briefing system.

Show Answer **Answer:** TIBS **Explanation:** Telephone Information Briefing Service offers recorded weather information by phone.
### FAA Knowledge Test – Weather & Performance (Questions 16–25)
16. What effect does frost have on an aircraft's wing surface?

Options:

  • Increases lift

  • Reduces drag

  • Decreases lift

  • Improves performance

Hint: Even a thin layer can cause big problems.

Show Answer **Answer:** Decreases lift **Explanation:** Frost disrupts smooth airflow over the wing, significantly reducing lift and increasing drag.
17. What is the significance of a "wind shear" advisory?

Options:

  • Good wind for gliding

  • Indicates risk of turbulence and loss of control

  • Harmless wind shift

  • Better tailwind for faster flight

Hint: Sudden changes in wind direction or speed.

Show Answer **Answer:** Indicates risk of turbulence and loss of control **Explanation:** Wind shear is a sudden shift in wind that can cause control issues or altitude loss during takeoff or landing.
18. How does temperature affect density altitude?

Options:

  • Lower temps increase density altitude

  • High temps lower density altitude

  • Higher temps increase density altitude

  • Temperature has no effect

Hint: Warm air = thin air.

Show Answer **Answer:** Higher temps increase density altitude **Explanation:** As temperature rises, air becomes less dense, simulating a higher altitude—reducing aircraft performance.
19. Why is weight and balance important before flight?

Options:

  • Ensures flight efficiency

  • Improves comfort only

  • Required only for long flights

  • Prevents radio interference

Hint: It’s a key safety factor for control and structural limits.

Show Answer **Answer:** Ensures flight efficiency **Explanation:** Proper weight and CG (center of gravity) ensure controllability and safe flight parameters.
20. What are characteristics of a stable air mass?

Options:

  • Cumulus clouds, turbulence

  • Showers and gusty winds

  • Poor visibility and smooth air

  • Thunderstorms and clear skies

Hint: Think haze and layered clouds.

Show Answer **Answer:** Poor visibility and smooth air **Explanation:** Stable air suppresses vertical motion, leading to smooth but hazy flying conditions.
21. What is the most accurate way to determine current winds at your destination airport?

Options:

  • METAR

  • TAF

  • SIGMET

  • Prognostic chart

Hint: It’s updated hourly.

Show Answer **Answer:** METAR **Explanation:** METARs give real-time surface conditions, including wind, temperature, visibility, and sky condition.
22. What is the result of flying with a center of gravity too far forward?

Options:

  • Unstable pitch control

  • Improved maneuverability

  • Better climb rate

  • Increased stall speed

Hint: Nose-heavy means higher speeds needed to stay aloft.

Show Answer **Answer:** Increased stall speed **Explanation:** A forward CG requires more tail-down force, which increases stall speed and can reduce pitch authority.
23. How does surface wind affect takeoff and landing?

Options:

  • Crosswinds reduce lift

  • Headwinds shorten takeoff and landing rolls

  • Tailwinds improve safety

  • Surface winds have no effect

Hint: Facing the wind helps.

Show Answer **Answer:** Headwinds shorten takeoff and landing rolls **Explanation:** Headwinds increase relative airspeed, generating more lift for shorter ground roll.
24. What does a surface weather chart depict?

Options:

  • Winds aloft

  • Icing forecasts

  • Pressure systems and fronts

  • Runway closures

Hint: Look for Hs and Ls.

Show Answer **Answer:** Pressure systems and fronts **Explanation:** These charts display atmospheric pressure features and surface weather phenomena.
25. What type of fog forms when warm, moist air moves over a cooler surface?

Options:

  • Radiation fog

  • Upslope fog

  • Advection fog

  • Precipitation-induced fog

Hint: Think ocean breezes and coastal mornings.

Show Answer **Answer:** Advection fog **Explanation:** Advection fog forms when moist air travels horizontally over a colder surface, cooling the air to its dew point.

FAA Knowledge Test – Radio Communication & Airport Operations (25 Questions)#

1. What does the term “standby” mean in radio communication?

Options:

  • The controller is ending communication

  • You are cleared for takeoff

  • Pause and wait for further instructions

  • Switch to another frequency

Hint: The controller wants a moment before giving you more information.

Show Answer **Answer:** Pause and wait for further instructions **Explanation:** “Standby” means wait without transmitting until the controller calls back.
2. What is the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) used for?

Options:

  • Navigating instrument approaches

  • Reporting weather

  • Coordinating aircraft at non-towered airports

  • Communicating with emergency services

Hint: Self-announce and listen here when there’s no tower.

Show Answer **Answer:** Coordinating aircraft at non-towered airports **Explanation:** Pilots use CTAF to self-announce positions and intentions in the traffic pattern.
3. What does an airport’s segmented circle system indicate?

Options:

  • Tower instructions

  • Weather

  • Traffic pattern direction

  • Flight altitude

Hint: It’s visual and installed on the ground.

Show Answer **Answer:** Traffic pattern direction **Explanation:** The segmented circle provides pattern guidance when approaching an uncontrolled airport.
4. What does UNICOM stand for?

Options:

  • Universal Communication

  • Uniform Communications

  • Uncontrolled Airport Management

  • Unified Communications

Hint: It’s a service that helps you get fuel or call a cab.

Show Answer **Answer:** Universal Communication **Explanation:** UNICOM provides advisory services at some non-towered airports, often operated by FBOs.
5. If ATIS information is listed as “Information Bravo,” how should you begin communication with the tower?

Options:

  • “Tower, this is Information Bravo”

  • “With Bravo”

  • “Bravo Roger Tower”

  • “Bravo is clear for takeoff”

Hint: This confirms you’ve listened to the correct broadcast.

Show Answer **Answer:** “With Bravo” **Explanation:** When contacting ground or tower, pilots should state they have "Information Bravo" to confirm current ATIS.
6. What does the “Hold Short” instruction from ATC mean?

Options:

  • Continue to the runway

  • Cross the runway

  • Stop before entering the runway

  • Begin takeoff roll

Hint: Stop until ATC clears you further.

Show Answer **Answer:** Stop before entering the runway **Explanation:** "Hold Short" is a critical instruction to prevent runway incursions.
7. What phrase should you use when terminating communication with ATC?

Options:

  • “Goodbye”

  • “Tower out”

  • “Over and out”

  • “Roger, frequency change approved”

Hint: Acknowledge the hand-off.

Show Answer **Answer:** “Roger, frequency change approved” **Explanation:** This confirms to ATC that you will switch frequencies as authorized.
8. What does a flashing red light from a control tower to a taxiing aircraft mean?

Options:

  • Stop immediately

  • Cleared to taxi

  • Return to starting point

  • Use caution

Hint: Red means stop—flashing means urgent.

Show Answer **Answer:** Stop immediately **Explanation:** A flashing red light to a taxiing aircraft signals to stop right away for safety.
9. What is the correct radio call when departing a non-towered airport?

Options:

  • “[Airport] traffic, [Aircraft], departing [Runway], [Direction] departure”

  • “Tower, departing”

  • “Departing traffic, this is [Aircraft]”

  • “Goodbye [Airport]”

Hint: Say where, who, what, and which runway.

Show Answer **Answer:** “[Airport] traffic, [Aircraft], departing [Runway], [Direction] departure” **Explanation:** This format gives complete info to nearby traffic for safety.
10. What color are taxiway edge lights?

Options:

  • Red

  • White

  • Blue

  • Green

Hint: These outline the route to the runway.

Show Answer **Answer:** Blue **Explanation:** Taxiway edge lights are blue to distinguish them from runway lighting systems.
11. What is AWOS?

Options:

  • Automated Weather Observing System

  • Airfield Work Operations Signal

  • Approach Waypoint Orientation System

  • All-Weather Operations Service

Hint: It announces altimeter and wind info.

Show Answer **Answer:** Automated Weather Observing System **Explanation:** AWOS provides current weather data, available by radio or phone.
12. What does the term “line up and wait” mean?

Options:

  • Take off immediately

  • Enter runway and hold position

  • Taxi across the runway

  • Depart from a taxiway

Hint: You’re on the runway but not cleared to fly.

Show Answer **Answer:** Enter runway and hold position **Explanation:** “Line up and wait” instructs pilots to position on the runway and await takeoff clearance.
13. What is the CTAF frequency typically at non-towered airports?

Options:

  • 122.95 MHz

  • 122.8 MHz

  • 118.0 MHz

  • 126.7 MHz

Hint: It’s the most common unicom frequency.

Show Answer **Answer:** 122.8 MHz **Explanation:** While CTAF can vary, 122.8 MHz is the most commonly assigned frequency for UNICOM and traffic advisory.
14. What should a pilot do if radio failure occurs in Class D airspace?

Options:

  • Land immediately without clearance

  • Continue in silence

  • Follow lost comm procedures and observe tower signals

  • Call on a backup radio immediately

Hint: Look outside the cockpit for light signals.

Show Answer **Answer:** Follow lost comm procedures and observe tower signals **Explanation:** Pilots must squawk 7600, maintain VFR, and look for tower light gun signals.
15. What is the purpose of a rotating airport beacon operating during the day?

Options:

  • Indicates high winds

  • Runway is closed

  • Flight school in session

  • Below VFR weather minimums

Hint: You might want to check the METAR again.

Show Answer **Answer:** Below VFR weather minimums **Explanation:** A rotating beacon during daylight may indicate the field is operating under IFR due to poor visibility or cloud ceilings.
16. What does “squelch” refer to on an aviation radio?

Options:

  • Reducing engine vibration

  • Adjusting transmission frequency

  • Eliminating background static noise

  • Boosting reception range

Hint: It’s the knob that keeps your ears sane.

Show Answer **Answer:** Eliminating background static noise **Explanation:** The squelch control filters out unwanted noise when no signal is being received.
17. What does a white and green rotating airport beacon indicate?

Options:

  • Heliport

  • Military airport

  • Civilian land airport

  • Water aerodrome

Hint: The most common combination for pilots.

Show Answer **Answer:** Civilian land airport **Explanation:** A white and green beacon designates a lighted land airport.
18. What is the purpose of the Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)?

Options:

  • Provide real-time radar

  • Broadcast non-control weather and information

  • Handle flight plans

  • Provide clearance delivery

Hint: Save time by listening before calling.

Show Answer **Answer:** Broadcast non-control weather and information **Explanation:** ATIS provides continuous automated weather, runway info, and notices to reduce radio congestion.
19. What does the term “negative” mean in aviation communication?

Options:

  • Incorrect heading

  • Cancel transmission

  • No or permission denied

  • Switch frequency

Hint: The opposite of “affirmative.”

Show Answer **Answer:** No or permission denied **Explanation:** "Negative" is standard phraseology to reject a request or state disagreement.
20. What is the correct phrase to request a repeat of the last transmission?

Options:

  • “Again”

  • “Please repeat”

  • “Say again”

  • “Copy that”

Hint: Two short words, official phraseology.

Show Answer **Answer:** “Say again” **Explanation:** “Say again” is the official phrase to request retransmission of unclear or missed information.
21. What runway marking consists of white stripes and a runway number?

Options:

  • Displaced threshold

  • Runway hold line

  • Runway designation marking

  • Blast pad

Hint: It’s literally painted where you’re landing.

Show Answer **Answer:** Runway designation marking **Explanation:** These are the runway numbers and centerline markings used for alignment and identification.
22. What’s the meaning of a steady red light signal from the tower to an aircraft in the air?

Options:

  • Return to land

  • Stop

  • Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

  • Land immediately

Hint: Think “red = yield.”

Show Answer **Answer:** Give way to other aircraft and continue circling **Explanation:** A steady red means continue circling and do not land.
23. What airport surface sign has a yellow background with black lettering?

Options:

  • Location sign

  • Directional sign

  • Mandatory instruction sign

  • Runway distance remaining sign

Hint: Yellow signs point where to go.

Show Answer **Answer:** Directional sign **Explanation:** Direction signs use a yellow background to indicate taxiway routes.
24. What should you do if you're approaching a non-towered airport and hear no CTAF traffic?

Options:

  • Continue approach silently

  • Broadcast your position and intentions

  • Divert immediately

  • Land without announcing

Hint: Speak up even if no one’s talking.

Show Answer **Answer:** Broadcast your position and intentions **Explanation:** Always self-announce position and intentions when flying into non-towered fields, even if others are silent.
25. What is the minimum radio equipment required for Class C airspace?

Options:

  • Transponder only

  • Two-way radio only

  • Two-way radio and Mode C transponder

  • ADS-B Out only

Hint: You need to talk and be seen.

Show Answer **Answer:** Two-way radio and Mode C transponder **Explanation:** Aircraft must establish communication with ATC and have altitude-reporting capability in Class C airspace.

FAA Knowledge Test – ADM, Emergency, Airport Markings & Signage (25 Questions)#

1. What is the first step in aeronautical decision making (ADM)?

Options:

  • Takeoff decision

  • Identify personal attitudes

  • Choose alternates

  • Gather weather data

Hint: It starts with mindset awareness.

Show Answer **Answer:** Identify personal attitudes **Explanation:** ADM begins with recognizing hazardous attitudes and their influence on pilot decision making.
2. What attitude is described as “I can do it—no matter what”?

Options:

  • Resignation

  • Macho

  • Invulnerability

  • Anti-authority

Hint: Overconfidence in skill.

Show Answer **Answer:** Macho **Explanation:** The "Macho" hazardous attitude is overconfidence and risk-taking for self-image.
3. What is the antidote for the “Resignation” attitude?

Options:

  • “I’m not helpless.”

  • “I can do it.”

  • “Rules are for safety.”

  • “It won’t happen to me.”

Hint: Think empowerment.

Show Answer **Answer:** “I’m not helpless.” **Explanation:** Pilots must recognize they are responsible and capable of influencing flight outcomes.
4. What does the “DECIDE” model stand for?

Options:

  • Diagnose, Estimate, Choose, Implement, Evaluate

  • Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate

  • Determine, Eliminate, Confirm, Initiate, Direct, Evaluate

  • Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Eliminate

Hint: Six sequential decisions.

Show Answer **Answer:** Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate **Explanation:** The DECIDE model guides structured ADM in dynamic flight environments.
5. What is a good response when ATC gives you a clearance you’re unsure you can accept?

Options:

  • Read it back and figure it out

  • Disobey it

  • Ask for clarification or an alternate

  • Stay silent

Hint: Communication is key.

Show Answer **Answer:** Ask for clarification or an alternate **Explanation:** Pilots must ensure clarity and safety; it’s always acceptable to ask ATC for help.
6. During an emergency without radio contact, what transponder code should be set?

Options:

  • 1200

  • 7700

  • 7600

  • 7500

Hint: The emergency code.

Show Answer **Answer:** 7700 **Explanation:** Squawking 7700 alerts ATC to a general emergency.
7. What’s the best practice if you become disoriented during a flight?

Options:

  • Descend below clouds

  • Climb and turn back

  • Trust instruments and maintain flight attitude

  • Close your eyes and wait

Hint: Trust the tools, not your senses.

Show Answer **Answer:** Trust instruments and maintain flight attitude **Explanation:** Spatial disorientation is dangerous; rely on your instruments to maintain control.
8. Which acronym helps pilots assess personal readiness for flight?

Options:

  • CIGAR

  • PAVE

  • I’M SAFE

  • FORDEC

Hint: It includes illness, stress, alcohol…

Show Answer **Answer:** I’M SAFE **Explanation:** “Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion” helps self-check physical and mental readiness.
9. In an engine failure during takeoff, what’s the first priority?

Options:

  • Diagnose engine cause

  • Communicate with ATC

  • Maintain control and airspeed

  • Look for checklist

Hint: Fly the airplane first.

Show Answer **Answer:** Maintain control and airspeed **Explanation:** Aviate, navigate, communicate—stay in control above all.
10. What’s the antidote to the hazardous attitude of “Anti-authority”?

Options:

  • “Someone else can do it.”

  • “Rules are for others.”

  • “Follow the rules; they are usually right.”

  • “Take shortcuts.”

Hint: Rules matter.

Show Answer **Answer:** “Follow the rules; they are usually right.” **Explanation:** Recognizing that regulations are in place for safety is key to countering anti-authority bias.

Airport Markings & Signage#

11. What do two solid yellow lines with two dashed yellow lines indicate on a taxiway?

Options:

  • Runway boundary

  • ILS critical area

  • Hold short line for runway

  • Runway centerline

Hint: Don’t cross without clearance.

Show Answer **Answer:** Hold short line for runway **Explanation:** This marking tells pilots where to stop when holding short of a runway.
12. What does a runway with a large white “X” indicate?

Options:

  • Closed runway

  • Precision approach

  • Taxi-only surface

  • Active runway

Hint: X means it’s out of service.

Show Answer **Answer:** Closed runway **Explanation:** White Xs denote closed runways that must not be used for takeoff or landing.
13. What do yellow chevrons on the runway indicate?

Options:

  • Runway threshold

  • Displaced landing area

  • Blast pad—not for landing

  • Final approach

Hint: It’s not for takeoff or taxi either.

Show Answer **Answer:** Blast pad—not for landing **Explanation:** These chevrons designate areas designed to absorb jet blast, not used for aircraft movement.
14. What does a runway hold sign look like?

Options:

  • Red background, white text

  • Yellow background, black letters

  • Black background, yellow letters

  • White background, red arrows

Hint: Mandatory instruction signs are red.

Show Answer **Answer:** Red background, white text **Explanation:** These signs mark protected areas—pilots may not proceed without clearance.
15. What type of sign has a black background with yellow letters?

Options:

  • Location sign

  • Directional sign

  • Hold short sign

  • Distance remaining

Hint: “You are here.”

Show Answer **Answer:** Location sign **Explanation:** Location signs help pilots confirm their current taxiway or runway.
16. What does a runway number represent?

Options:

  • Heading in true north

  • Magnetic heading rounded to nearest 10°

  • Altitude

  • Length in hundreds of feet

Hint: Runway 27 = 270° approx.

Show Answer **Answer:** Magnetic heading rounded to nearest 10° **Explanation:** Runway 18, for instance, faces 180°, or due south.
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